Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 05:29
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Do Republicans want to ban books and decide what your kids can and can’t read?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why would Joseph Smith say that polygamy was God's law?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What melts your heart every time without fail?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.